• CaractacusPotts@lemmy.caOP
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      8 months ago

      The difference is that Israel is considered an occupying power and has responsibilities under international law as such.

      • Socsa@sh.itjust.works
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        8 months ago

        “The difference” is that Israel’s formal position is not the elimination of Palestinian Arabs. Zionism as we know it primary exists because of widespread genocidal attitudes towards Jews.

        I’m not defending Israel’s heavy hand here by any means. I am just tired of everyone on the internet feeling free to just ignore all the historical context wrapped up in this conflict.

        • CaractacusPotts@lemmy.caOP
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          8 months ago

          Israel’s formal position is not the elimination of Palestinian Arabs.

          The UN has found credible evidence to the contrary

          https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2022/6/7/un-report-finds-israeli-occupation-root-cause-of-conflict

          Zionism was from the very beginning a settler colonial enterprise. Yes genocidal attitudes towards Jews may have been used to promote the idea, but the end goal was always possession of land.

          In its initial stage, Zionism was conceived by its pioneers as a movement wholly depending on mechanical factors: there is a country which happens to be called Palestine, a country without a people, and, on the other hand, there exists the Jewish people, and it has no country. What else is necessary, then, than to fit the gem into the ring, to unite this people with this country? The owners of the country [the Turks] must, therefore, be persuaded and convinced that this marriage is advantageous, not only for the [Jewish] people and for the country, but also for themselves.

          https://digitalprojects.palestine-studies.org/resources/special-focus/zionist-settler-colonialism